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Monday, December 5, 2016

Clinical Microbiology HW#16



Concept Map: Syphilis

1. Al Capone contracted syphilis in his youth. By the time he was imprisoned in Alcatraz, he was suffering from syphilis-induced confusion and disorientation. What stage of syphilis did Mr. Capone have at this time?
Tertiary

2. Which of the following is true of the latent stage of syphilis infection?
It may never progress to tertiary syphilis.

3. Which of the following terms does NOT describe syphilis?
Attenuated

A burning Question

A 20-year-old woman comes to the local clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain and sharp burning pain on urination (dysuria) that has gone on for 1 week. She also complains of mild fever and chills. Her history and physical reveal that she has had eight sexual partners in the previous year and has used condoms only on occasion because she has been taking birth control pills. She has not visited her physician or gynecologist for 2 years. The clinic physician performs a pelvic exam and sample collection to determine the causative agent, telling the patient that she likely has contracted a sexually transmitted infection (STI).

1. Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a significant problem in the world. The symptoms described in the case thus far are fairly general and may apply to multiple STIs. However, many STIs can be discerned by other visual signs that accompany the general symptoms.
**Checking patients for STIs is difficult because of the wide range of signs and symptoms that may or may not be present. Many STIs share symptoms. Clinical diagnosis of STIs starts with looking for the most obvious and commonly seen signs.

On further examination, the physician finds no obvious external lesions on or around the patient’s genitalia. However, the physician does note the presence of a discharge.

2. The physician performs a pelvic exam, which reveals the presence of an abnormal thin, watery vaginal discharge and inflammation of the cervix. The physician then palpates the abdomen (examines by touch and pressure) and finds that the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries are enlarged and tender. The physician takes a swab sample of the cervix and sends it to the laboratory to determine the causal organism. Light microscopy and simple staining of the sample in the lab reveal an organism with a very unique life cycle. The organism is classified as gram-negative, but it stains very poorly compared to other classic gram-negative STI pathogens. The stain shows both a nonreplicating, extracellular infectious elementary body and a replicating, noninfectious reticulate body inside mucosal cells from the cervical epithelium swab. Based on the symptoms and these new laboratory findings, which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis for the patient?
Chlamydia
**The physician makes a clinical diagnosis of chlamydia. Additionally, the exam shows that the patient has signs of progressive chlamydial pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

This just went from bad to worse for the patient. Untreated STI cases can lead to progression of disease beyond the borders of the urinary and reproductive tracts, with potentially serious complications.

3. The two most common STI organisms associated with PID in the United States are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. There are many similarities between these STIs. Which of the following statements comparing chlamydia and gonorrhea are true?
Patients may be coinfected with both gonorrhea and chlamydia.
Chlamydia is found more often in women, whereas gonorrhea is found more often in men.
Chlamydia and gonorrhea can infect a patient and be transmitted without causing obvious symptoms.
**STIs not only are hard to detect, but also are not mutually exclusive. When a patient has one STI, others may be “hiding in the shadows.” STIs spread rapidly and can have consequences outside the urinary and reproductive tracts.

The laboratory needs more time to rule out a mixed infection but does confirm the presence of Chlamydia. The patient’s symptoms suggest that this infection has been going on for a while and has progressed beyond a simple case of Chlamydia urethritis to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). As discussed in the above question, these STIs aren’t just for the genitals anymore!

4. Chlamydia PID is just part of the overall spectrum of disease caused by Chlamydia organisms. Even though we now understand more about STIs and their complications, we are still exploring how the organisms “branch out” beyond just a single infection. Which of the following diseases have Chlamydia infection as an etiology?
infertility
inclusion conjunctivitis
pneumonia
trachoma
lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
cervical cancer
**Mixed STI infections (which may involve both different species and different strains of the same species) are able to manifest in an infected patient with more than just the classic “clap” symptoms. The caregiver should always be aware that more may be going on in the patient than meets the eye and act appropriately to instruct the patient on routes of spread the person might not anticipate.

Having identified the STI and potential consequences, we now need to turn to appropriate treatment for her conditions.

5. Our patient needs antibiotics to overcome this infection and prevent any further complications. Which of the following would be the best choice?
a combination therapy of cephalosporin-class AND macrolide-class

Conclusion
After 3 days of hospitalization for antibiotic therapy, monitoring, and laboratory testing to assess the function of her reproductive systems, the patient is released to go home. She is discharged with a short course of antibiotics, educational materials about STIs (with multiple copies so that she can notify and inform her partners), and instructions to follow up with her gynecologist for yearly checkups.

Chapter 26 Reading Questions

1. If a patient is diagnosed with trichomoniasis, which treatment should be prescribed?
Metronidazole

2. Which disease or microbe is NOT transmitted across the placenta to the unborn fetus?
ophthalmia neonatorum
**Ophthalmia neonatorum is not transmitted across the placenta; the infant acquires it during passage through the birth canal.

Diseases in Focus Chapter 26 – Male, age 23

Medical History (Hx)
The patient is a 23-year-old male. He is from Loveland, Colorado. He was admitted to the clinic seeking sexually transmitted infection (STI) testing. An initial physical examination of the patient shows several small, blisterlike bumps on his penis. The patient is a student and also plays drums in a band. He is in a monogamous heterosexual relationship of six months, and reports consistent use of spermicidal condoms during intercourse. He estimates that he has sex with his girlfriend roughly twice a week. He lives in an apartment with one male roommate; however, he frequently stays at his girlfriend’s house. His most recent travel was a cruise he and his girlfriend took in Alaska a month ago. Neither he nor his girlfriend owns any pets. He does not report using any drugs of abuse. He does not have a family history of genetic disease. He is lactose intolerant. Two weeks ago, he noticed an unusual tingling sensation in his genitalia. He did not mention it to his girlfriend, nor did he seek any specific medical attention. He subsequently began to notice a burning sensation during urination, along with a few small red bumps resembling pimples at the base of his penis. After a few days, he noticed that the bumps had multiplied and some had started to become blisters. At this point, he and his girlfriend decided to seek STI testing. She is with him upon admittance to the clinic. She has not experienced any similar symptoms; however, she would also like to be tested as a precautionary measure.

Differential Diagnoses
Differential diagnosis is the process of identifying a disease from a list of possible diseases that fit the information derived from examining a patient. Your job will be to synthesize information from a patient whose main presenting symptoms are consistent with a microbial disease of the reproductive system. Use the Chapter 26 Disease Tables 26.1, 26.3 and Diseases Associated with AIDS and your knowledge about microbial diseases of the urinary and reproductive systems to identify the patient's risk factors and symptoms, evaluate diagnostic evidence, formulate and test a diagnosis about the pathogen responsible for the patient's woes, and suggest a course of treatment.

1. Identify relevant information
Review the patient's medical history, and then identify risks and concerns that are relevant to your diagnosis (and the patient's treatment).
Relevant:
Risk of travel-related disease exposure
Not Relevant:
Age-related risk of disease
Occupational risk of disease
Risk of sexually transmitted infection
Risk of vector-borne disease
Risk of drug-related disease exposure
Risk of genetic/familial disease
Special concerns for treatment
Risk of immunocompromised
**You've reviewed your patient's medical history. He has traveled recently, which could increase his exposure to novel pathogens and vector organisms. This does not give you very much to go on, though; especially since your patient's symptoms suggest that he has an STI. You decide to try to focus your hypothesis--perhaps if you have a better understanding of what STIs suit his symptoms, you will be better able to identify the relevant information in his medical history.

Review possible diagnoses.
Now that you have considered the evidence at hand, you should start to build a hypothesis about what disease your patient has based upon the symptoms he presents. In the beginning of your diagnostic process you should try to think broadly and consider any and all reasonable possibilities. You can then narrow down these possibilities by performing diagnostics that can support or refute your hypothesis.

2. Given your current information, which of the following diseases do you think could be responsible for your patient's symptoms?
genital herpes
**You suspect your patient may have genital herpes!

3. Select a diagnostic.
You would like to perform some diagnostics to help you confirm your hypothesis. Which of the following would you like to do to help you make a diagnosis of genital herpes?
culture of fluid from vesicle
PCR testing on fluid from vesicle
Serology
**You take a blood sample and sample of cells and fluid from your patient's lesions. You also take a blood sample and vaginal swab from his girlfriend. You release the couple from the clinic and let them know that their results will be available in a couple of days. You decide to order antibody testing, virus cultures, and PCR for your samples. Which herpes viruses should you focus on, though?

4. Refine your hypothesis
The viruses responsible for genital herpes belong to the family Herpesviridae. Genital herpes is only one of several conditions caused by viruses of this family. Eight types of herpesvirus are currently known to cause disease in humans. Match each type of herpes virus to the disease it causes.
HHV-1: cold/canker sores, oral herpes, genital herpes
HHV-2: cold/canker sores, oral herpes, genital herpes
HHV-3: chicken pox, shingles
HHV-4: infectious mononucleosis
HHV-5: CMV inclusion disease, retinitis
HHV-6: roseola, roseola infantum (measleslike rash in infants)
HHV-7: roseola, roseola infantum (measleslike rash in infants)
HHV-8: Kaposi’s sarcoma
** Human herpesvirus 1 and 2 are responsible for both oral and genital herpes.

5. Of the two strains of virus that cause genital herpes, which strain is more likely to be responsible for your patient's outbreak?
herpes simplex virus 2
** Most cases of genital herpes are caused by HHV-2. You will perform PCR on your patient's sample for both HHV-1 and 2, however.

6. If you assume that this is your patient's first outbreak and that his condition had an incubation period, when would you guess that he acquired the virus?
three weeks ago
** If this is your patient's first outbreak of genital herpes, then you might expect that he contracted the disease roughly one week before the first onset of symptoms.

7. You would like to ask your patient about scenarios where he could have contracted the virus. Which of the following could he have acquired genital herpes from?
skin-to-skin contact with infected oral or genital area
oral sex
physical contact with an asymptomatic person with latent genital herpes
unprotected vaginal sex
anal sex
vaginal sex with condom
** Your lab results have returned. Your patient's viral culture is positive for HHV-2, which your PCR results confirm. Your patient's girlfriend's results are negative for both HHV-2 and HHV-1, however. You call your patient and his girlfriend back in, and separately inform them of their respective diagnoses.

8. Interpret your results
Your patient's girlfriend looks shocked when you deliver the news. She immediately runs out to your patient, exclaiming: "How could you cheat on me??!" Your patient stammers that he hasn't and wouldn't cheat on her. Is it possible that he is telling the truth?
Yes, he could be telling the truth.
You explain to your patient's girlfriend that is very possible that he caught the disease long before his current outbreak. Around 90% of patients with HHV-2 experience recurrences over their lifetime, and it is not uncommon for initial outbreaks of genital herpes to go completely unnoticed.

9. Treat the disease
Your patient tries to sheepishly smile at his girlfriend and reaches out for her. She is still clearly upset, but she takes his hand and sighs loudly. She turns to you and asks how you plan to cure her boyfriend. You reply that ______.
you cannot cure your patient's disease
** You inform the couple that while they can manage your patient's symptoms and outbreaks, he will never truly be "cured" of the disease.
The viruses responsible for genital herpes, like all herpesviruses, can remain latent in the body for long periods of time. After an initial infection, some people experience sporadic outbreaks as the virus (latent in the trigeminal or sacral nerve ganglia) becomes active and is transported from the neuron to the skin. Reactivation appears to be triggered by several factors, including menstruation, emotional stress, illness, or even vigorous contact with an area of infection (e.g., scratching an area, or friction from sexual contact).

10. "If I can never be cured, how can I avoid passing the disease to my girlfriend?" your patient cries.
You assure him that it is still possible for him maintain a relationship, although he will potentially have to form some new habits and take some extra precautions. You recommend that if the pair mutually agrees to continue dating, then he and/or his girlfriend should ______.
avoid sex when the infected partner is symptomatic
use additional protection during oral sex (dental dam, saran wrap)
use a condom during intercourse
take a daily prescription for valacyclovir
** You inform the couple that with forethought and proper precautions, they should be able to have the kind of relationship that suits them both. Although abstinence from sexual activities is the only method that is 100% effective against the spread of genital herpes, if the couple decides to pursue a continued sexual relationship, there are several things they can do to reduce the risk of transmission. While some methods of safe sex are more effective than others for preventing the spread of genital herpes, a combination of barrier methods, antiviral drug treatment, and thoughtful timing of sexual encounters (i.e., no sexual contact during an active outbreak) can greatly reduce the risk of spreading the disease.

Chapter 26

1. Pyelonephritis may result from
All of the answers are correct.
** systemic infections; ureteritis; urethritis; cystitis

2. Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?
Candidiasis

3. A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder
is sterile.

4. The most common reportable disease in the United States is
gonorrhea.

5. Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea?
None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.
** arthritis; endocarditis; meningitis; pelvic inflammatory disease

6. Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?
genital herpes

7. Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of
genital herpes.

8. Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever?
Syphilis

9. Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because
maternal antibodies offer protection.

10. Which of the following is greater?
the number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year

11. A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms?
Treponema

12. Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

13. Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems.
FALSE

14. Genital candidiasis is a disease that only affects women.
FALSE

15. Trichomoniasis is the only known STI caused by a protozoan.
TRUE


Sunday, December 4, 2016

Clinical Microbiology HW#15



Concept Map: Viral Hepatitis

1. Which of the following NOT true for both hepatitis B and hepatitis C infection?
The disease is prevented by vaccination.
**There is a vaccine for hepatitis B.
***TRUE:
The virus can cause a chronic disease.
The infection is transmitted through blood and body fluids.
Diagnosis can be achieved through testing the blood for antibodies.

2. What do hepatitis A and hepatitis B have in common?
Both can be prevented by a vaccine.

3. What organ is most affected by hepatitis B virus?
Liver

Chapter 25 Reading Questions

1. John went to a picnic. He took some leftover chicken and rice home, heated it on the stove, ate it, and got sick two hours later. John thought the heating made his food safe because it would have killed any bacteria present. He didn't know that __________ produces a heat-stable toxin.
Staphylococcus aureus

2. Which is the correct sequence of events regarding the stages of tooth decay? 1. Dentin decay 2. Enamel decay 3. Plaque 4. Pulp decay
3-2-1-4

3. Ergot poisoning __________.
may cause hallucinogenic symptoms

Diseases in Focus Chapter 25 – Male, age 49

Medical History (Hx)
The patient is a male, age 49. He was admitted to the clinic with a high fever, muscle pains (myalgias), and facial swelling around his eyes (periorbital edema). The patient works as a pharmaceutical sales representative based in Hawai'i. He lives in Honolulu, on the island of Oahu. He is married, monogamous, and sexually active, with a 16-year old son. He does not report using drugs of abuse, and rarely drinks alcohol, but does smoke cigarettes (estimates 8 per day). His son has a pet iguana, which he has fed once or twice since his son got it (roughly two years ago). He is allergic to drugs containing sulfonamides. He has a family history of cancer. Within the last year (6 months ago), he and his wife traveled to Thailand to visit extended family. He reports feeling fine during and after his travel. A month ago, he and his family traveled to Maui to attend a street fair celebrating the Thai New Year. While at the fair, he ate several food items from vendors. He felt fine that night; however the following evening he experienced a sudden onset of diarrhea, accompanied by abdominal cramps and heartburn. After a few days, his symptoms faded, and he did not think anything more of the episode. Five days ago, he again rapidly developed frequent, watery diarrhea, myalgias, and a severe headache. Over the next few days, the tissue around his eyes began to swell, and small hemorrhages appeared under his fingernails (splinter hemorrhages). Initial examination shows that he is dehydrated and feverish, with large swollen bags under and around his eyes. No one else in his family is sick, despite the fact that his wife and son were also present and ate food at the street fair.

Differential Diagnoses
Differential diagnosis is the process of identifying a disease from a list of possible diseases that fit the information derived from examining a patient. Your job will be to synthesize information from a patient whose main presenting symptoms are consistent with a microbial disease of the digestive system. Use the "Diseases in Focus" 25.2, 25.3 and 25.4, and 25.5 tables and your knowledge about microbial diseases of the digestive system to identify the patient's risk factors and symptoms, evaluate diagnostic evidence, formulate and test a diagnosis about the pathogen responsible for the patient's woes, and suggest a course of treatment.

1. Identify relevant information
Review the patient's medical history, and then identify risks and concerns that are relevant to your diagnosis (and the patient's treatment).
Relevant:
Risk of vector-borne disease
Risk of travel-related disease exposure
Special concerns for treatment
Not Relevant:
Age-related risk of disease
Occupational risk of disease
Risk of sexually transmitted infection (STI)
Risk of drug-related disease exposure
Risk of genetic/familial disease
Risk of immunocompromised
**Your patient's medical history reveals that he has recently traveled, and that he is in contact with a vector animal associated with the transmission of certain types of infectious disease. Potentially, these factors could help you identify diseases your patient may have come into contact with.

2. Focus your hypothesis
Before you can focus your hypothesis further, you'd like to know more about the diarrheal symptoms your patient has been experiencing. You ask him to describe his bowel movements. He replies that he has been having roughly 10 watery bowel movements a day. You ask him to clarify "watery," and he adds that his movements have been loose with some fluid, but he would not describe them as extremely watery. He has not noticed any blood in his stool.
Based upon your patient's description of his bowel movements, you feel it is LESS likely that your patient has:
dysentery, or a disease with dysentery-like symptoms
cholera, or a disease with cholera-like symptoms
**It does not seem that your patient has a form of cholera, dysentery, or a disease of similar diarrheal symptoms. He could have a form of gastroenteritis, however. You will need to gather more information to solidify a hypothesis.

3. Gather more information
You take a blood sample from your patient, and record his vital signs. As you do this, you decide to ask your patient some details about situations where you believe it is most likely that he acquired his illness. You begin by asking him:
What did he and his family eat at the street fair?
**You ask your patient about what he ate the night of the street fair, and he recalls having eaten a fresh spring roll (spring roll wrapper, cooked rice noodles, sprouts, cabbage, onion, herbs, lime), a plate of pad thai (noodles, cooked chicken, cooked shrimp, cooked egg, fresh sprouts, chopped peanuts), a side of larb salad (ground pork, toasted rice, fish sauce, basil, mint, lime, chilies), and chicken satay (chicken on a skewer with peanut sauce). At the time, he had noted that his chicken skewer had seemed a little pink, but it "tasted fine," and he had eaten the entire thing.
You suspect that your patient may have acquired a foodborne illness. Many diseases of the digestive system are the result of ingesting food that is not properly prepared, stored, or fully-cooked. Since your patient ate several items that could explain the symptoms and timing of his illness, it is possible that he acquired his condition via ingestion of contaminated foods.

Refine your hypothesis
To further refine your hypothesis, you'd like to know what your patient's family ate the night of the street fair.

Fresh Spring Roll (each person had their own)
Pad Thai
Larb Salad
Chicken Satay (each person had their own)
Mango with Sticky Rice
Your Patient
x
x
x
x
-
Wife
x
x
-
x
x
Son
x
x
-
-
x
The table above summarizes what each family member ate.

4. Considering the food items each family member ate, which dish do you think is the most likely source of infection?
The larb salad
**Since your patient is the only family member to have eaten the larb salad, you are suspicious that this item is responsible for his illness. Larb is a meat salad consisting primarily of a ground meat (in this case pork), as well as fish sauce, toasted rice, herbs, spices, lime, and chilies.
You know that contaminated pork can transmit a number of infectious diseases. After a quick review of the literature, you decide to highlight following the pork-related pathogens as potential causes for your patient's illness:
Pathogens Associated with Pork
Bacteria
Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella sp., Staphylococcus aureus, Yersinia enterocolitica
Viruses
Hepatitis E virus
Helminths
Taenia solium, Trichinella spiralis

5. Interpret results
Your patient's blood test returns from the lab. Many of his levels are within a normal range; however his complete blood count (CBC) shows an elevation in the number of eosinophils (eosinophilia) in his blood, as well as an overall elevation in total white blood cell numbers (leukocytosis). He also has higher than normal levels of creatine kinase and lactic dehydrogenase, indicating some sort of tissue damage. Which of the following hypotheses does this evidence best support?
a multicellular parasite
**Elevated numbers of eosinophils could be indicative of an active infection by a multicellular parasite.

6. Refine your hypothesis
Considering the bloodwork, time-course, and symptoms of your patient's disease, which pathogen do you suspect he has contracted?
Trichinella spiralis
**The symptoms of Trichinella spiralis infection are the best fit for what your patient has been experiencing.

Select a course of action.
Now that you have a good idea about what pathogen your patient might be harboring, you would like to run some diagnostics that will allow you to confirm the presence of Trichinella spiralis. You collect a blood and a stool sample.

7. What diagnostics would you like to perform on one or both of these samples?
serology (ELISA)
**You order serology for Trichinella antibodies to be performed on your patient's samples, as well as a quantitative immunoglobulin test.

8. Predict your results
During an infection, the levels of more than one class of immunoglobulins may increase, or sometimes decrease. An increase in which of the following classes would best support the hypothesis that your patient has a helminth infection?
IgE
** IgE can be greatly increased during T. spiralis infection. This characteristic can be very useful for a diagnosis of trichinellosis, especially when combined with positive serology, muscle biopsy, and/or a combination of other classic trichinellosis symptoms (facial and/or eyelid edema, hemorrhages under the nails (subungual hemorrhage), myalgia, and diarrhea).

9. Treat the disease
The results of your patient's ELISA return positive for T. spiralis. Your hypothesis is confirmed: your patient has trichinellosis!
Now that you've identified your patient's disease, fill out his prescription for treatment:
Mebendazole and corticosteroids
** You prescribe your patient mebendazole and a course of corticosteroids. You also notify the health authorities of your diagnosis, and subsequently call several of the hospitals on Maui where you believe your patient contracted the disease. The staff of one of the largest hospitals tells you that they have had 28 other cases of trichinellosis. The outbreak was eventually traced to the larb dish your patient ate at the street fair. The pork was ground in a meat grinder that had also been used to make sausage from at least one infected wild hog. Traditionally, the meat in larb salad can be served raw with lime juice, or lightly cooked. In this case, the infected meat was not cooked long enough to kill the encysted worms, and thus several people contracted the parasites. Trichinellosis in wild hogs can be difficult to eradicate as rodents can also serve as a reservoir for the disease. The parasite is passed when hogs or other animals eat the meat of infected animals (rats, pork, etc.). This sort of transmission cycle means that omnivorous and carnivorous animals have a high incidence of infection. Trichinellosis is frequently found in animals such as bears, mountain lions, foxes, and seals. This has been a particular problem for Inuit and Native American cultures that traditionally consume these animals. Trichinellosis is also a common problem in Southeast Asia, where raw or lightly cooked pork dishes are part of many traditional celebrations.

Chapter 25

1. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by
extended use of antibiotics

2. Which of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?
Mumps

3. Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE?
It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes.
**TRUE:
It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes.
It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food.
It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms.
It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin.

4. Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?
Vibrio parahaemolyticus

5. Aflatoxin is a(n) ________ associated with ingestion of contaminated ________.
mycotoxin; peanuts

6. "Rice water stools" are characteristic of
Cholera

7. Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by
contaminated food and water.

8. Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with
water and electrolytes.

9. Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications
have shorter incubation times

10. Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it
possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl.

11. Following a county fair, 160 persons complained of gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms included diarrhea (84 percent), abdominal cramps (96 percent), nausea (84 percent), vomiting (82 percent), body aches (50 percent), fever (60 percent; median body temperature = 38.3°C); median duration of illness 6 days (range 10 hr to 13 days).
In the situation, fecal samples were found to be negative when cultured. The next step in diagnosing the cause of illness would be
microscopic examination of fecess for oocysts.

12.
Food
Relative Risk
Black beans
0.58
Corn soup
0.75
Jalapeño peppers
34.13
Roma tomatoes
5.40
The relative risks shown in the table were calculated for foods suspected of transmitting Salmonella. Which food is the most likely source of infection?
jalapeño peppers

The Case of the Hidden Souvenir
Michael was excited when his boss sent him to work on a 6-month project with the Vice President of International Affairs at their corporation in Beijing, China. Before leaving the United States, he visited his family doctor for a complete physical and to receive his immunizations. The physician reviewed Michael’s medical history and current lab results and declared that he was a healthy 32-year-old. Michael adjusted well to the move and made many new friends. They would often get together on the weekends to go swimming at a nearby lake, to play volleyball at the local park, or to watch movies and cook dinner. He quickly found that his favorite meal was a stir-fry containing a mixture of pork, fresh raw vegetables, and noodles. He would eat this combination of foods three to four times a week.
To his surprise, within 3 months of moving to China, Michael started losing weight. He was not trying to lose weight and when asked about his diet, Michael would say that he ate all the time. At first, he thought the weight loss was just a result of his metabolism adjusting to his new Asian diet and was not a cause for concern. However, after 2 months of continuous weight loss, the non-stop eating was replaced by nausea and slight abdominal pain. At this time, Michael began to think something might be wrong.

Michael scheduled an appointment with Dr. Clark at the local medical center. During his appointment, the two of them discussed where Michael had traveled since he had been in China, the types of foods he had eaten, the specifics of his exercise regimen, and his extracurricular activities. They also discussed the lack of symptoms other than the weight loss and recent bouts of nausea. After talking with Michael, Dr. Clark requested that multiple stool specimen be sent to the laboratory for examination. He also ordered serological testing of Michael’s blood to determine his antibody titer levels. He was concerned that Michael may have an intestinal parasite infection, even though many are asymptomatic.

1. Why does Dr. Clark request stool samples for examination?
He will have the laboratory prepare the samples for an ova and parasite (O&P) exam. Fresh or preserved stool samples can be observed microscopically for the presence of parasites or their eggs/cysts.
Tapeworms are pathogens of the gastrointestinal tract; as a natural progression of digestion some of the tapeworm pieces will be expelled along with fecal matter.
** Investigation of stool samples is an important diagnostic tool for physicians and other medical personnel. The stool is prepared in such a way that any parasite eggs or proglottids remain in the sample. After processing, the sample is placed on a microscope slide for observation. Staining can be performed, but is not always necessary. Morphological examination of any specimen found in the stool will help with identification.
Preliminary laboratory results rule out bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections and indicate that Michael is most likely infected with a helminthic parasite.

2. Which of the following represents the MOST LIKELY route of transmission for Michael’s infection?
Foodborne - Eating undercooked, unwashed, or otherwise contaminated food that contained parasitic propagules
** The most likely mode of transmission in Michael’s case was through the undercooked pork that he ate in his stir-fry. Humans are a definitive host for the pork tapeworm and are infected when they ingest larval cysts embedded in the muscle tissue of the pig. This transmission cycle is common in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. Interestingly, pigs in the United States are virtually parasite-free, and pork tapeworm infections are transmitted person-to-person via the fecal-oral route. Eggs from infected people with poor hygiene can be ingested by others, which allows the life cycle to continue without the pigs as an intermediate host.

3. Which of the following organisms is most likely the causative agent of Michael’s tapeworm infection?
Taenia solium
** T. solium is the tapeworm associated with eating undercooked pork. Eggs and proglottids from the adult tapeworm are released in the intestines and can be observed in fecal samples with a light microscope. Diagnosis is based on these findings.
Microscopic analysis of Michael’s stool sample confirmed the presence of tapeworm eggs and proglottids in the genus, Taenia. Image A is the microscopic view of tapeworm eggs from a fecal sample. Image B is the microscopic view of a proglottid from a fecal sample. Dr. Clark informed Michael that given his diet history, he is most likely infected with the pork tapeworm, T. solium. A related species, T. saginata, is associated with eating raw beef and its scolex differs from that of T. solium. Image C is T. solium, the pork tapeworm. Notice how T. solium has a row of hooks. These structures are not found in T. saginata. Image D is Enterobius vermicularis, a roundworm.

4. Compare the anatomy of the tapeworm (Image C) to the anatomy of the roundworm (Image D). Given that both are parasitic worms, which of the following reasons best explains why the tapeworm is flat?
Tapeworms utilize diffusion to absorb nutrients from the host’s digestive system.
** The tapeworm’s high surface-area-to-volume ratio is an adaptation to utilize diffusion in the nutrient-rich environment of the host’s intestine. These worms lack digestive structures and must rely on the host to completely digest food before it is absorbed by the worm via its outer layer called a cuticle. Roundworms have a more complex digestive system and are capable of digesting food that has only been partially digested by the host. This decreases the need for a high surface-area-to-volume ratio because diffusion of nutrients is no longer an issue.

5. What is the correct sequence of events for the life cycle of the pork tapeworm, T. solium?
Eggs are produced by adult tapeworms living in the definitive host.
Eggs are released to the environment in the feces.
Pig eats grass contaminated, or fertilized, with human feces.
Inside the intermediate host, the eggs mature into larvae and encyst in the hosts muscles.
The definitive host ingests the larvae and becomes infected.
** The adult worm produces thousands of eggs in the human host. These eggs leave the digestive tract via the feces. When pigs eat grass contaminated with, or fertilized by, human feces they become infected with T. solium. The tapeworm eggs mature into larvae that encyst themselves in the muscle tissue of the pig. When humans eat pork that has not been cooked to high enough temperatures, they become infected with the tapeworm.
Michael’s blood work reveals an increase in eosinophils, which are granular white blood cells, and his IgE antibodies. Along with the microscopic analysis of the stool specimen, these lab results confirm the diagnosis of a tapeworm infection

6. Why do we see an increase in the levels of IgE antibody in Michael’s serum?
IgE is the class of antibodies involved in hypersensitivities such as allergies and parasitic infections.
**IgE is typically found in very low amounts in the blood serum. It increases in response to allergic reactions and parasitic infections. There is also a correlation with an increase in IgE amounts and the increase of eosinophils in a blood smear. Eosinophils are white blood cells that release peroxide ions to destroy the parasite from the outside.

7. What is the treatment that Dr. Clark will most likely recommend?
Praziquantel or albendazole, drugs that target eukaryotic parasites with minimal side effects in the host.
** Praziquantel and albendazole are both anti-helminthic drugs. Praziquantel is effective against tapeworms because it changes the permeability of the cuticle and blocks nutrient uptake. During this process the drug also uncovers surface antigens that stimulate an immune response. Albendazole is a broad-spectrum anti-helminthic drug that also blocks nutrient uptake by inhibiting microtubule formation in the cytoplasm. It is used commonly to treat livestock as well.
After treatment, Dr. Clark wanted to monitor Michael’s progress to make sure the tapeworm infection was completely cleared. He also ordered Michael to get a computed tomography (CT) scan and a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. These scans confirmed that Michael’s infection was localized to the digestive tract and the tapeworms had not spread beyond that point.

8. Why was Dr. Clark worried about tapeworm infection in other body sites?
When tapeworm larvae escape the stomach, they can travel to other parts of the body such as muscles, the liver, the eye, and even the brain to form cysticerci.
The presence of T. solium in the brain can result in neurocysticercosis, a serious condition which has symptoms resembling those of brain tumors or epilepsy.
** Tapeworms in the intestinal tract are usually asymptomatic. Humans are the definitive host and support the growth of adult tapeworms. Pigs are intermediate hosts that continue the life cycle of T. solium. Occasionally, the human host can become an intermediate host. Larvae escape the stomach and migrate to other tissues in the body. Once in other tissues, the larvae form cysts called cysticerci. These cysts can cause problems, especially in the eye and in the brain.

Chapter 25

1. Bacterial infections, but not intoxications, can cause diarrhea.
FALSE

2. An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent.
TRUE

Big Picture Coaching Activity: Cholera after natural disasters

Cody is an epidemiologist working for the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) in Atlanta. He is on his way to a local college to give a presentation on cholera to the members of the Microbiology Club. The focus of his talk is a cholera epidemic in Haiti that followed an earthquake in 2010.

1. Causative agent of cholera
Cholera is a waterborne pathogen that causes severe gastrointestinal disease. The organism is a slightly curved, gram-negative rod that likes to grow in the small intestine and causes watery stools and violent vomiting. Complete the following statement: Cholera is caused by the bacterium, __________ and produces __________ that result in severe diarrhea.
Vibrio cholera; exotoxins
** The causative agent of cholera is Vibrio cholerae. This organism is a curve-shaped, gram-negative rod. It produces cholera toxin, which is an exotoxin that causes infected individuals to experience extreme diarrhea and vomiting.

2. Effect of natural disasters
During his presentation to the Microbiology Club, Cody mentions that the cholera epidemic in 2010 came shortly after an earthquake. He also mentions that other cholera epidemics had occurred following natural disasters such as flooding. Which of the following has the greatest impact on the number of cholera cases after a natural disaster?
sewage contamination in drinking water
** In the Big Picture activity, it mentions that the displacement of people and a loss of clean drinking water is the biggest contributor to cholera outbreaks. Given that cholera is caused by a bacterium found in the gastrointestinal tract, it makes sense that the feces of infected individuals would contain the pathogen. If the feces contaminate the water and then the people drink the water, this can lead to an epidemic. It is important to maintain water purification, especially following a natural disaster.

3. Mechanism of the cholera toxin
The pathogenesis of Vibrio cholerae is due to the organism’s ability to produce cholera toxin. This is an A-B toxin that affects host cells in the small intestine. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of the toxin?
The cholera toxin causes the host cells to secrete large amounts of fluids and electrolytes.
** The production of a superantigen and toxic shock syndrome is the mechanism used by staphylococcal enterotoxin.

4. Treatment
In untreated individuals, the mortality rate of cholera can be as high as 50%, but in individuals that are given oral rehydration therapy, fatalities are rare. Oral rehydration therapy involves treating the patients with an oral suspension of salt, sugar, and water. Which of the following choices explains why this suspension is used instead of pure water to treat cholera infections?
The salt and sugar in the rehydration solution will replace lost electrolytes and the water replaces the lost water.
** The oral rehydration solution is used over pure water because the salt and sugar compounds have ions that will replace the lost electrolytes. In the case of cholera, fatalities occur because a patient can lose between 12 and 20 liters of fluids in a day, and the large loss can lead to shock, collapse, and even death. It is very important in this situation to replace the electrolytes and the water that has been lost.

5. Bacterial infection versus intoxication
In this case study, the main focus has been on the organism Vibrio cholerae and the toxin it produces. Many organisms are capable of producing toxins that allow for pathogenesis, while others are able to infect the host directly and cause disease. In this activity, you will place the organism in a bin based on its ability to cause an infection, an intoxication, or both.
Infection: Shigella sonnei; Vibrio cholerae; Escherichia coli; Salmonella enterica
Intoxication: Staphylococcus aureus